Theory and Research in Child Development

Order Description

Theory and Research in Child Development 1. British philosopher John Locke viewed the child as A. tainted by original sin. B. a tabula rasa. C. a noble savage. D. an active, purposeful being. 2. Theorists who emphasize _______ in explaining individual differences typically stress the importance of early experiences. A. the environment B. the extended family C. the prefrontal cortex D. discontinuity 3. According to Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s view, the child is A. a tabula rasa. B. a noble savage. C. an active, purposeful being. D. tainted by original sin. 4. Before arriving in a kindergarten classroom, Dr. Banks prepares a questionnaire for interviewing children for her research. This is an example of a research A. question. B. method. C. design. D. hypothesis. 5. A strength of _______ is that it reflects participants’ everyday behavior. A. naturalistic observation B. structured observation C. the clinical interview D. the structured interview 6. An investigator interested in studying sexual practices among high school students asked them to post their answers on a Facebook group page. Which of the following research rights was most obviously violated? A. Privacy B. Protection from harm C. Informed consent D. Beneficial treatments 7. G. Stanley Hall and his student, Arnold Gesell, A. argued that children actively revise their ways of thinking, but also learn through habit. B. were the first researchers to implement behavior modification techniques. C. developed the first intelligence test. D. regarded child development as a maturational process. 8. Cross-cultural research stimulated by Vygotsky’s theory reveals that A. adults begin to encourage valued skills as soon as children start school. B. cultures select different tasks for children’s learning. C. sociocultural theory has little application outside industrialized nations. D. the developmental sequences observed in Western cultures are universal. 9. Which of the following statements is true about cohort effects? A. They occur because of factors commonly associated with development. B. They occur when participants move away or drop out of studies. C. They can’t occur when specific experiences influence some children but not others in the same generation. D. They don’t just operate broadly on an entire generation. 10. Pete participates in soccer and is beginning to master fundamental reading and math skills. Pete is probably in which period of human development? A. Infancy and toddlerhood B. Adolescence C. Middle childhood D. Early childhood 11. According to _______, children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations. A. ecological systems theory B. the psychoanalytic perspective C. the behaviorist perspective D. social learning theory 12. Dr. Hoo believes that children who are high in verbal ability, anxiety, or sociability will remain so at later ages. Dr. Hoo likely emphasizes the role of _______ in her research. A. context B. plasticity C. stability D. discontinuity 13. Five-year-old Stefan uses symbols to represent sensorimotor discoveries. However, his thinking lacks logic. Stefan is in Piaget’s _______ stage of development. A. concrete operational B. preoperational C. formal operational D. sensorimotor 14. Alfred Binet defined intelligence as A. recall, reflection, and communication. B. good judgment, planning, and critical reflection. C. emotional, social, and cognitive awareness. D. reaction time and sensitivity to physical stimuli. 15. In a sequential design, which of the following occurs? A. Participants are presented with a novel task, and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions. B. Groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time. C. Researchers conduct several cross-sectional or longitudinal investigations. D. Participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older. 16. The continuous development view holds that A. infants and preschoolers respond to the world in much the same way as adults do. B. development takes place in stages. C. children’s thoughts, emotions, and behavior differ considerably from those of adults. D. development is much like climbing a staircase. 17. Psychoanalytic theorists were strongly committed to A. correlational studies of preschool children. B. systematic observation. C. in-depth study of individual children. D. the experimental method. 18. Which of the following is a major criticism of Freud’s theory? A. It was based on the problems of sexually repressed, well-to-do adults, not on direct study of children. B. It ignores the value of the clinical, or case study, method. C. It doesn’t acknowledge the individual’s unique life history as worthy of study and understanding. D. It mostly ignores milestones of infant and toddler development. 19. Rousseau regarded development as _______ and largely influenced by nature. A. nurture B. inexplicable C. cyclical D. discontinuous 20. Which of the following is a correct statement about the field of child development? A. The field of child development is part of a larger, interdisciplinary field known as developmental science. B. The field of child development is devoted to understanding human constancy and change throughout the lifespan. C. The field of child development focuses primarily on children’s physical and emotional development. D. The field of child development focuses primarily on infants’ and children’s social and cognitive development. End of exam – Foundations of Abnormal Child Psychology 1. John’s boss wants him to test clients using all the remaining stock of the old WISC-III before buying the current WISC-IV forms. John knows that regulations require him to use the new form. John is facing a/an A. moral gray area. B. emotional trauma. C. professional crisis. D. ethical dilemma. 2. Regarding the Multiaxial Assessment, what is true about mental retardation and personality disorders? A. They’re not coded on Axis I. B. Subtypes of these disorders are coded differently. C. They’re not included in the Assessment. D. Self-diagnosis is higher for these disorders. 3. Professionally, gift giving refers to A. rules about bartering. B. accepting a gift from the client. C. gifts of therapy, such as reduced tension. D. giving a token gift to the client. 4. All of the following are true concerning the APA ten ethical standards, except A. the standards address appropriate advertising and displays of public information. B. the standards address matters pertaining to research and publication. C. the standards were useful in past decades, but are no longer useful. D. the standards assist professionals to resolve ethical issues. 5. Susy is feeling depressed. She visits a therapist who says that it’s “all in her head.” He says she’s depressed because she’s “thinking like a depressed person.” Susy’s therapist likely supports which theoretical model? A. Sociocultural B. Biomedical C. Behavioral D. Cognitive 6. Darren follows his impulses blindly, and is described as a child who “does whatever he wants, whenever he wants.” Darren’s _______ guides his behavior. A. disability B. id C. aggression D. ego 7. Choose the true statement about Henry Goddard. A. His research helped prove that genetic influence is less important than upbringing. B. His reputation was damaged when he fathered children with a barmaid. C. He wrote a respected, factual biography of Martin Kallikak. D. He established a training program especially for the mentally handicapped. 8. The text cites four biases that could possibly distort perceptions. Which of the following is not one of the biases stated? A. Personal bias B. Expectancy bias C. Observer bias D. Recording bias 9. Recording the number of times a student raises his hand in class is an example of _______ recording. A. narrative B. interval C. continuous D. event 10. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebrum C. Amygdala D. Reticular activating system 11. What is one advantage of interval recording as an observation method? A. Privacy and discretion are optimized. B. There’s much information about the quality of behavior. C. More than one observer can collect data. D. It tracks the frequency of behaviors. 12. Which of the following is not a risk factor evident at the microsystem level? A. Peer rejection B. Poor quality schools C. Marital conflict D. Fewer opportunities for recreation 13. American Indian/Alaskan Native adolescents reported _______ levels of substance use compared to youth of other ethnic groups. A. similar B. less predictable C. lower D. higher 14. According to the APA Ethics Code, what must a psychologist do when obtaining consent? A. Consider the person’s preferences and best interests B. Use professional language, even with young children C. Explain the procedure only if specifically asked D. Receive consent from a minor’s mother or maternal relative 15. Which of the following statements about children in Europe before the 15th century is true? A. Comfort and happiness were considered vital for child health. B. Development fluctuated radically in different countries. C. The primary earners in most families were the children. D. Children were considered to be miniature adults. 16. Which statement about children from low income situations is true? A. They spend more time outside, and have fewer allergies than other children. B. Their parents usually have learning disabilities or mood disorders. C. The influence of the ego is stronger than it is for other children. D. They’re more likely than other children to have poor health. 17. All of the following are goals of a case formulation, except A. problem identification. B. problem prevention. C. problem classification. D. problem clarification. 18. What are Mash and Wolfe’s three goals of assessment? A. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment B. Acceptance, tolerance, and appreciation C. Identification, classification, and improvement D. Observance, recording, and analysis 19. Although Native Americans can access services through Indian Health Services (IHS), the problem with this arrangement is that A. most Native Americans are unaware that the services exist. B. most Native Americans live in rural areas and most of the IHS are situated in major urban areas. C. most IHS are located on reservations and only 20% of Native Americans live on reservations. D. the IHS services provide medical but not mental health services. 20. Rutter and Sroufe identified _______ as one of three important areas of focus in the future of developmental psychopathology. A. the role of the media in the life of the modern child B. how cause and effect underlie childhood disorders C. creating a stricter definition of normal behavior D. fetal development’s influence on childhood behavior End of exam – Cognitive and Language Development 1. In Sternberg’s theory, individuals who are high in practical intelligence excel at A. generating solutions to novel problems. B. acquiring task-relevant and metacognitive knowledge. C. tasks assessing nonverbal abilities. D. adapting their thinking to fit with the demands of their everyday worlds. 2. Toddlers in Substage 6 of the sensorimotor period can solve object-permanence problems involving invisible displacement because they’ve developed the capacity to A. construct mental representations. B. carry out means–end action sequences. C. engage in goal-directed behavior. D. understand dual representation. 3. _______ exposes children to great breadth of language knowledge, and is especially helpful in modeling how to communicate in a clear, coherent narrative style. A. Dialogue with caregivers about storybooks B. Observing adults’ conversations C. Reading aloud with same-age peers D. Independent exploration of picture books 4. Before Binet and Simon’s test, other researchers tried to assess intelligence using A. simple measures of sensory responsiveness and reaction time. B. measurements of the skull’s physical dimensions. C. experimental hypnosis. D. interviews and observations of behavior. 5. Social interactionists believe that children’s _______ language development. A. social competencies and language experiences greatly affect B. built-in LAD is solely responsible for C. neural processing speed determines D. native language dictates the pace of 6. Two-year-old Jenna is taught nonsense words for a noun (pling for a soft, cuddly puppet) and a verb (dass for a rocking motion). Jenna is likely to A. understand both new words, but is unlikely to use them in spontaneous speech. B. produce novel word combinations with the new verb. C. confuse the new noun with the new verb. D. easily combine the new noun with words she knows well. 7. Which of the following questions is most likely to appear first in a young child’s speech? A. “Where Mommy hiding?” B. “Why is Sally sad?” C. “Daddy go work?” D. “What you are eating?” 8. Theresa is in a period of the most energetic development of her executive function. What is her age range? A. She is in late adolescence. B. She is in the preschool years. C. She is an emerging adult. D. She is in her school years. 9. Phonological development is largely complete by age A. 4. B. 3. C. 5. D. 2. 10. Research on creativity demonstrates that A. extensive knowledge isn’t necessary to make a creative contribution to a field. B. creative people tend to have little patience and persistence in the face of obstacles. C. IQ and creativity are highly correlated. D. creativity involves alternating between divergent and convergent thinking. 11. Research conducted with Kanzi, a bonobo chimp, A. indicates that chimps are better at communicating through the use of written, rather than visual, symbols. B. proves that chimps are capable of communicating basic needs, but nothing else. C. shows that bonobos are capable of conversation that includes asking questions and sharing information. D. produced no definitive results about Kanzi’s linguistic achievements. 12. Ella is African American. As she goes through middle childhood, she will most likely A. become increasingly conscious of ethnic stereotypes. B. be indifferent to ethnic stereotypes. C. become less conscious of ethnic stereotypes. D. be immediately assigned to remedial classes when she performs poorly on an IQ test. 13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the consequences of abstract thought? A. Sense of omnipotence is moderately associated with depression and suicidal thinking. B. Sense of personal uniqueness eliminates sensitivity to criticism. C. The imaginary audience discourages independence from parents. D. The imaginary audience helps teenagers maintain important relationships. 14. Preschoolers don’t understand why puns are funny because they haven’t yet developed the ability to A. appreciate the multiple meanings of words. B. deal with word meanings on an entirely verbal plane. C. extend language meanings through metaphor. D. handle unconventional word meanings. 15. A central goal of the information-processing approach is to A. develop applications for classroom learning. B. describe the normative course of cognitive development. C. refine and revise Piaget’s theory. D. uncover mechanisms of change. 16. Chomsky’s language acquisition device (LAD) refers to A. computer programs that attempt to generate the linguistic rules that are needed for language acquisition. B. instructional techniques for children with speech and language delays. C. speech programs that parents can use to teach their children grammatical rules. D. an innate system that permits children to combine words into grammatically consistent, novel utterances. 17. Children use current schemes to interpret their world in the process of assimilation, whereas _______ allows them to create new schemes or adjust old ones after noticing that their current way of thinking doesn’t capture the environment completely. A. organization B. adaptation C. accommodation D. equilibration 18. Which of the following statements is true regarding cooperative learning? A. The extent to which children achieve independence is key to fostering cooperative learning. B. A single peer interaction is more beneficial than interactions with multiple peers. C. Children’s problem solving improves most when their peer partner has equal expertise on the task. D. For cooperative learning to succeed, Western children usually require extensive guidance. 19. Three-year-old Serena refers to a squirrel as a “rabbit,” but points correctly to a squirrel when given the word squirrel in a comprehension task. Serena probably has A. difficulty pronouncing the word squirrel. B. a hearing disability. C. difficulty recognizing squirrels. D. difficulty discriminating between squirrels and rabbits. 20. Which of the following statements is true regarding working memory? A. Working memory is the conscious, reflective part of our mental system. B. The capacity of working memory is far more restricted than that of the sensory register. C. Most school-age children can hold 10 to 12 items in their working memory. D. The capacity of working memory is far greater than that of the long-term memory store. End of exam – Foundations of Abnormal Child Psychology 1. John’s boss wants him to test clients using all the remaining stock of the old WISC-III before buying the current WISC-IV forms. John knows that regulations require him to use the new form. John is facing a/an A. moral gray area. B. emotional trauma. C. professional crisis. D. ethical dilemma. 2. Regarding the Multiaxial Assessment, what is true about mental retardation and personality disorders? A. They’re not coded on Axis I. B. Subtypes of these disorders are coded differently. C. They’re not included in the Assessment. D. Self-diagnosis is higher for these disorders. 3. Professionally, gift giving refers to A. rules about bartering. B. accepting a gift from the client. C. gifts of therapy, such as reduced tension. D. giving a token gift to the client. 4. All of the following are true concerning the APA ten ethical standards, except A. the standards address appropriate advertising and displays of public information. B. the standards address matters pertaining to research and publication. C. the standards were useful in past decades, but are no longer useful. D. the standards assist professionals to resolve ethical issues. 5. Susy is feeling depressed. She visits a therapist who says that it’s “all in her head.” He says she’s depressed because she’s “thinking like a depressed person.” Susy’s therapist likely supports which theoretical model? A. Sociocultural B. Biomedical C. Behavioral D. Cognitive 6. Darren follows his impulses blindly, and is described as a child who “does whatever he wants, whenever he wants.” Darren’s _______ guides his behavior. A. disability B. id C. aggression D. ego 7. Choose the true statement about Henry Goddard. A. His research helped prove that genetic influence is less important than upbringing. B. His reputation was damaged when he fathered children with a barmaid. C. He wrote a respected, factual biography of Martin Kallikak. D. He established a training program especially for the mentally handicapped. 8. The text cites four biases that could possibly distort perceptions. Which of the following is not one of the biases stated? A. Personal bias B. Expectancy bias C. Observer bias D. Recording bias 9. Recording the number of times a student raises his hand in class is an example of _______ recording. A. narrative B. interval C. continuous D. event 10. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebrum C. Amygdala D. Reticular activating system 11. What is one advantage of interval recording as an observation method? A. Privacy and discretion are optimized. B. There’s much information about the quality of behavior. C. More than one observer can collect data. D. It tracks the frequency of behaviors. 12. Which of the following is not a risk factor evident at the microsystem level? A. Peer rejection B. Poor quality schools C. Marital conflict D. Fewer opportunities for recreation 13. American Indian/Alaskan Native adolescents reported _______ levels of substance use compared to youth of other ethnic groups. A. similar B. less predictable C. lower D. higher 14. According to the APA Ethics Code, what must a psychologist do when obtaining consent? A. Consider the person’s preferences and best interests B. Use professional language, even with young children C. Explain the procedure only if specifically asked D. Receive consent from a minor’s mother or maternal relative 15. Which of the following statements about children in Europe before the 15th century is true? A. Comfort and happiness were considered vital for child health. B. Development fluctuated radically in different countries. C. The primary earners in most families were the children. D. Children were considered to be miniature adults. 16. Which statement about children from low income situations is true? A. They spend more time outside, and have fewer allergies than other children. B. Their parents usually have learning disabilities or mood disorders. C. The influence of the ego is stronger than it is for other children. D. They’re more likely than other children to have poor health. 17. All of the following are goals of a case formulation, except A. problem identification. B. problem prevention. C. problem classification. D. problem clarification. 18. What are Mash and Wolfe’s three goals of assessment? A. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment B. Acceptance, tolerance, and appreciation C. Identification, classification, and improvement D. Observance, recording, and analysis 19. Although Native Americans can access services through Indian Health Services (IHS), the problem with this arrangement is that A. most Native Americans are unaware that the services exist. B. most Native Americans live in rural areas and most of the IHS are situated in major urban areas. C. most IHS are located on reservations and only 20% of Native Americans live on reservations. D. the IHS services provide medical but not mental health services. 20. Rutter and Sroufe identified _______ as one of three important areas of focus in the future of developmental psychopathology. A. the role of the media in the life of the modern child B. how cause and effect underlie childhood disorders C. creating a stricter definition of normal behavior D. fetal development’s influence on childhood behavior End of exam – Internalizing Problems 1. In addition to excessive worry, a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in children requires _______ somatic symptom/symptoms. A. three B. two C. one D. four 2. Major depressive disorder in children can be diagnosed if the symptom criteria have been met for A. one year. B. two years. C. two weeks. D. six months. 3. Choose the correct example of selective mutism. A. Rayvon’s teacher says “he only hears what he wants to hear.” B. A brain injury has left Greg unable to make speech sounds. C. Jenny is extremely reluctant, even unwilling, to speak in public. D. Carlotta, 5, is developmentally normal but has not begun speaking yet. 4. Which of the following was not one of the original three Anxiety Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence? A. Separation anxiety disorder B. Simple phobia C. Overanxious disorder D. Avoidant disorder 5. Which of the following is considered a mediator effect for stress disorders? A. Poverty B. Gender C. Religious affiliation D. Race 6. Panic attacks have been related to irregular activity of which neurotransmitter? A. Serotonin B. Epinephrine C. Dopamine D. Norepinephrine 7. What is one common obsession of children with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)? A. Tooth brushing B. Insects C. Contamination D. Academic perfection 8. According to Wilens and colleagues, bipolar disorder in preschool children A. can resemble giddiness or drunkenness. B. is no different than BD across different age spans. C. has simultaneous onset with depression. D. hasn’t yet been supported empirically. 9. Of all the therapies that are used to treat unipolar depression in youth, the most common therapeutic approach is A. cognitive behavioral. B. humanistic. C. psychodynamic. D. family systems. 10. Wally, 10, has been sad and withdrawn ever since his family moved to a new neighborhood. He says he is dreading going to his new school in the fall. Wally’s parents surprise him with a puppy, and while walking the dog he meets a boy his age and makes friends. Soon Wally is his normal, happy self again. Wally was most likely exhibiting A. major depressive disorder. B. adjustment disorder with depressed mood. C. dysthymic disorder. D. depressed syndrome. 11. The category of Anxiety Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence originally appeared in which revision of the DSM? A. DSM-III (1980) B. DSM-II (1968) C. DSM- III-R (1987) D. DSM-IV (1994) 12. Compared to adults, pediatric bipolar disorder often evidences which of the following? A. Pressured speech B. Insomnia C. Grandiosity D. Severe irritability 13. Younger onset of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has been associated with which comorbidity? A. Separation anxiety disorder B. Specific phobias C. Conduct disorder D. School refusal 14. The prevalence of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) among children and adolescents has been estimated to be between 2 and _______ percent. A. 10 B. 2.5 C. 8 D. 4 15. Studies of the long-term impact for children who are exposed to traumatic events, such as natural disasters or high media exposure to covering the events, reveal that for children A. those at greater distance from the event may exhibit more symptoms of PTSD than those who are closer to the event. B. many of the children (more than five percent) continue to experience PTSD symptoms many years later. C. symptoms of PTSD are temporary responses to a traumatic situation. D. risk decreases if the child was subjected to previous abuse due to a numbing factor. 16. Vegetative symptoms refer to _______ symptoms. A. environmental B. physical C. emotional D. cognitive 17. Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, while compulsions are A. unpleasant desires. B. manifest content. C. rigid behaviors. D. inappropriate words. 18. Which of the following is not a vegetative symptom of depression? A. Fatigue B. Weight loss C. Weight gain D. Insomnia 19. The term learned helplessness was originally used to describe A. battered wives who didn’t seek help. B. reactions of experimental animals that didn’t escape after repeated shocks. C. children who learn that they can get help instead of producing output. D. people who don’t sense a state of release. 20. Which of the following disorders appears under Disorders First Diagnosed in Infancy and Childhood in the DSM-IV-TR? A. Type-II diabetes B. Obsessive compulsive disorder C. Specific phobia D. Separation anxiety disorder End of exam – Problems in Late Childhood or Adolescence 1. All of the following are possible outcomes of illicit inhalant use, except A. hallucinations and delusions. B. brain atrophy. C. euphoria. D. improved health. 2. The lifetime prevalence of anorexia nervosa is _______ percent. A. eight B. five C. one D. three 3. All of the following are true regarding those with anorexia nervosa, except A. approximately 30% will have a complete recovery. B. about 10% of those who are hospitalized will die. C. 50% will develop bulimia at some later stage. D. approximately 50% will have a partial recovery. 4. According to recent investigations, individuals with greater risk for alcohol dependence were found to have A. an abnormal dopamine receptor. B. higher levels of serotonin than normal. C. higher levels of norepinephrine than normal. D. increased activity in the prefrontal areas of the brain. 5. Sandra has a body mass index (BMI) of 30. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Sandra would be considered A. obese. B. normal. C. overweight. D. underweight. 6. The year is 2005 and Pat is trying to lose weight. Given the rates of dieting among different genders and ethnic groups, if Pat is in the group with the highest percentage, we would expect that Pat is a A. white female. B. black male. C. black female. D. Hispanic female. 7. Which of the following is not one of the risk factors that can increase body dissatisfaction in females? A. Encouraging maternal comments B. Internalization of ideal body image C. Negative affect D. Late maturation 8. In their study of middle school girls and body dissatisfaction, Keery and colleagues found all the following results concerning teasing, except A. among the negative outcomes for girls in family teasing situations were lower self-esteem and restrictive and bulimic eating behaviors. B. one-third were teased by at least one sibling. C. girls were especially sensitive to teasing by their mothers. D. one-quarter of the girls were subjected to teasing about their weight by their parents. 9. Nitrous oxide found in whipped cream dispensers is an example of which category of inhalants? A. Aerosols B. Nitrites C. Volatile solvents D. Gases 10. In his discussion of theoretical frameworks to account for feeding disorders of infancy or early childhood, Douglas omits which of the following theoretical models? A. Attachment Theory model B. Cognitive Theory model C. Developmental Theory model D. Learning Theory model 11. Which of the following is not one of the individual risk factors for substance use/abuse? A. Low harm avoidance B. Poor academic skills C. Novelty seeking D. Sensation seeking 12. Children spend an average of _______ hours a day sitting in front of a television or computer. A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 6 13. Georgia has anorexia nervosa and demonstrates many symptoms of the restricting type. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with her disorder? A. Confrontational family interchanges B. Increased risk for alcohol abuse/dependence C. Cluster B personality disorders D. Increased risk for obsessive compulsive disorder 14. Substance abuse refers to A. recurrent and adverse consequences caused by the substance. B. substance withdrawal. C. compulsive reliance on a substance. D. substance tolerance. 15. One important finding of the Monitoring the Future (MTF) surveys is the existence of _______ effects to help explain trends in drug usage from generation to generation. A. cohort B. genetic C. peer D. media 16. Comparing youth in the community sample with and without substance use disorders (SUD), A. in the community sample, youth with SUD were significantly more likely to also be diagnosed with ADHD. B. there was little difference between these two samples, in the prevalence for also having any other disorder. C. in the community sample, youth with SUD were also significantly more likely to have eating disorders. D. there was no difference in the comorbidity rate between these two samples for depressive disorders. 17. In the 2005 Youth Risk Behavior Survey, among males, which ethnic group had the largest discrepancy between their perceptions of being overweight (body dissatisfaction) and their actually being overweight (BMI)? A. Hispanic males B. White males C. Native Indian males D. Black males 18. In comparing prevalence rates for youth with SUD in clinical and juvenile justice samples, A. anxiety has always been narrowly defined. B. internalizing disorders were higher in the clinical population. C. the juvenile justice sample had higher rates of comorbid disorders of mood or depression. D. there was no difference in the rate of any disorder and externalizing disorders. 19. Monitoring the Future (MTF) is a survey of youth drug habits that has been in existence since A. 1980. B. 1990. C. 1965. D. 1975. 20. From a biological model, which of the following has been found to relate to increased risk for developing an eating disorder (ED)? A. An elevated dopamine neurotransmitter B. Relatives who don’t have an ED C. An impulsive temperament D. High self-efficacy End of exam – Externalizing Problems 1. The DSM equates functioning substantially below the expected level to be a difference of A. 3 standard deviations. B. 1 standard deviation. C. 1.5 standard deviations. D. 2 standard deviations. 2. According to Olweus, _______ percent of bullies are later convicted of multiple criminal offences. A. 10 to 15 B. 40 C. 25 D. 30 3. The current DSM requires _______ symptoms for a diagnosis of ADHD in any category. A. 8 out of a possible 16 B. 9 out of a possible 15 C. 6 out of a possible 9 D. 8 out of a possible 14 4. The earliest ADHD-like symp

Theory and Research in Child Development

Order Description

Theory and Research in Child Development 1. British philosopher John Locke viewed the child as A. tainted by original sin. B. a tabula rasa. C. a noble savage. D. an active, purposeful being. 2. Theorists who emphasize _______ in explaining individual differences typically stress the importance of early experiences. A. the environment B. the extended family C. the prefrontal cortex D. discontinuity 3. According to Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s view, the child is A. a tabula rasa. B. a noble savage. C. an active, purposeful being. D. tainted by original sin. 4. Before arriving in a kindergarten classroom, Dr. Banks prepares a questionnaire for interviewing children for her research. This is an example of a research A. question. B. method. C. design. D. hypothesis. 5. A strength of _______ is that it reflects participants’ everyday behavior. A. naturalistic observation B. structured observation C. the clinical interview D. the structured interview 6. An investigator interested in studying sexual practices among high school students asked them to post their answers on a Facebook group page. Which of the following research rights was most obviously violated? A. Privacy B. Protection from harm C. Informed consent D. Beneficial treatments 7. G. Stanley Hall and his student, Arnold Gesell, A. argued that children actively revise their ways of thinking, but also learn through habit. B. were the first researchers to implement behavior modification techniques. C. developed the first intelligence test. D. regarded child development as a maturational process. 8. Cross-cultural research stimulated by Vygotsky’s theory reveals that A. adults begin to encourage valued skills as soon as children start school. B. cultures select different tasks for children’s learning. C. sociocultural theory has little application outside industrialized nations. D. the developmental sequences observed in Western cultures are universal. 9. Which of the following statements is true about cohort effects? A. They occur because of factors commonly associated with development. B. They occur when participants move away or drop out of studies. C. They can’t occur when specific experiences influence some children but not others in the same generation. D. They don’t just operate broadly on an entire generation. 10. Pete participates in soccer and is beginning to master fundamental reading and math skills. Pete is probably in which period of human development? A. Infancy and toddlerhood B. Adolescence C. Middle childhood D. Early childhood 11. According to _______, children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations. A. ecological systems theory B. the psychoanalytic perspective C. the behaviorist perspective D. social learning theory 12. Dr. Hoo believes that children who are high in verbal ability, anxiety, or sociability will remain so at later ages. Dr. Hoo likely emphasizes the role of _______ in her research. A. context B. plasticity C. stability D. discontinuity 13. Five-year-old Stefan uses symbols to represent sensorimotor discoveries. However, his thinking lacks logic. Stefan is in Piaget’s _______ stage of development. A. concrete operational B. preoperational C. formal operational D. sensorimotor 14. Alfred Binet defined intelligence as A. recall, reflection, and communication. B. good judgment, planning, and critical reflection. C. emotional, social, and cognitive awareness. D. reaction time and sensitivity to physical stimuli. 15. In a sequential design, which of the following occurs? A. Participants are presented with a novel task, and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions. B. Groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time. C. Researchers conduct several cross-sectional or longitudinal investigations. D. Participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older. 16. The continuous development view holds that A. infants and preschoolers respond to the world in much the same way as adults do. B. development takes place in stages. C. children’s thoughts, emotions, and behavior differ considerably from those of adults. D. development is much like climbing a staircase. 17. Psychoanalytic theorists were strongly committed to A. correlational studies of preschool children. B. systematic observation. C. in-depth study of individual children. D. the experimental method. 18. Which of the following is a major criticism of Freud’s theory? A. It was based on the problems of sexually repressed, well-to-do adults, not on direct study of children. B. It ignores the value of the clinical, or case study, method. C. It doesn’t acknowledge the individual’s unique life history as worthy of study and understanding. D. It mostly ignores milestones of infant and toddler development. 19. Rousseau regarded development as _______ and largely influenced by nature. A. nurture B. inexplicable C. cyclical D. discontinuous 20. Which of the following is a correct statement about the field of child development? A. The field of child development is part of a larger, interdisciplinary field known as developmental science. B. The field of child development is devoted to understanding human constancy and change throughout the lifespan. C. The field of child development focuses primarily on children’s physical and emotional development. D. The field of child development focuses primarily on infants’ and children’s social and cognitive development. End of exam – Foundations of Abnormal Child Psychology 1. John’s boss wants him to test clients using all the remaining stock of the old WISC-III before buying the current WISC-IV forms. John knows that regulations require him to use the new form. John is facing a/an A. moral gray area. B. emotional trauma. C. professional crisis. D. ethical dilemma. 2. Regarding the Multiaxial Assessment, what is true about mental retardation and personality disorders? A. They’re not coded on Axis I. B. Subtypes of these disorders are coded differently. C. They’re not included in the Assessment. D. Self-diagnosis is higher for these disorders. 3. Professionally, gift giving refers to A. rules about bartering. B. accepting a gift from the client. C. gifts of therapy, such as reduced tension. D. giving a token gift to the client. 4. All of the following are true concerning the APA ten ethical standards, except A. the standards address appropriate advertising and displays of public information. B. the standards address matters pertaining to research and publication. C. the standards were useful in past decades, but are no longer useful. D. the standards assist professionals to resolve ethical issues. 5. Susy is feeling depressed. She visits a therapist who says that it’s “all in her head.” He says she’s depressed because she’s “thinking like a depressed person.” Susy’s therapist likely supports which theoretical model? A. Sociocultural B. Biomedical C. Behavioral D. Cognitive 6. Darren follows his impulses blindly, and is described as a child who “does whatever he wants, whenever he wants.” Darren’s _______ guides his behavior. A. disability B. id C. aggression D. ego 7. Choose the true statement about Henry Goddard. A. His research helped prove that genetic influence is less important than upbringing. B. His reputation was damaged when he fathered children with a barmaid. C. He wrote a respected, factual biography of Martin Kallikak. D. He established a training program especially for the mentally handicapped. 8. The text cites four biases that could possibly distort perceptions. Which of the following is not one of the biases stated? A. Personal bias B. Expectancy bias C. Observer bias D. Recording bias 9. Recording the number of times a student raises his hand in class is an example of _______ recording. A. narrative B. interval C. continuous D. event 10. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebrum C. Amygdala D. Reticular activating system 11. What is one advantage of interval recording as an observation method? A. Privacy and discretion are optimized. B. There’s
much information about the quality of behavior. C. More than one observer can collect data. D. It tracks the frequency of behaviors. 12. Which of the following is not a risk factor evident at the microsystem level? A. Peer rejection B. Poor quality schools C. Marital conflict D. Fewer opportunities for recreation 13. American Indian/Alaskan Native adolescents reported _______ levels of substance use compared to youth of other ethnic groups. A. similar B. less predictable C. lower D. higher 14. According to the APA Ethics Code, what must a psychologist do when obtaining consent? A. Consider the person’s preferences and best interests B. Use professional language, even with young children C. Explain the procedure only if specifically asked D. Receive consent from a minor’s mother or maternal relative 15. Which of the following statements about children in Europe before the 15th century is true? A. Comfort and happiness were considered vital for child health. B. Development fluctuated radically in different countries. C. The primary earners in most families were the children. D. Children were considered to be miniature adults. 16. Which statement about children from low income situations is true? A. They spend more time outside, and have fewer allergies than other children. B. Their parents usually have learning disabilities or mood disorders. C. The influence of the ego is stronger than it is for other children. D. They’re more likely than other children to have poor health. 17. All of the following are goals of a case formulation, except A. problem identification. B. problem prevention. C. problem classification. D. problem clarification. 18. What are Mash and Wolfe’s three goals of assessment? A. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment B. Acceptance, tolerance, and appreciation C. Identification, classification, and improvement D. Observance, recording, and analysis 19. Although Native Americans can access services through Indian Health Services (IHS), the problem with this arrangement is that A. most Native Americans are unaware that the services exist. B. most Native Americans live in rural areas and most of the IHS are situated in major urban areas. C. most IHS are located on reservations and only 20% of Native Americans live on reservations. D. the IHS services provide medical but not mental health services. 20. Rutter and Sroufe identified _______ as one of three important areas of focus in the future of developmental psychopathology. A. the role of the media in the life of the modern child B. how cause and effect underlie childhood disorders C. creating a stricter definition of normal behavior D. fetal development’s influence on childhood behavior End of exam – Cognitive and Language Development 1. In Sternberg’s theory, individuals who are high in practical intelligence excel at A. generating solutions to novel problems. B. acquiring task-relevant and metacognitive knowledge. C. tasks assessing nonverbal abilities. D. adapting their thinking to fit with the demands of their everyday worlds. 2. Toddlers in Substage 6 of the sensorimotor period can solve object-permanence problems involving invisible displacement because they’ve developed the capacity to A. construct mental representations. B. carry out means–end action sequences. C. engage in goal-directed behavior. D. understand dual representation. 3. _______ exposes children to great breadth of language knowledge, and is especially helpful in modeling how to communicate in a clear, coherent narrative style. A. Dialogue with caregivers about storybooks B. Observing adults’ conversations C. Reading aloud with same-age peers D. Independent exploration of picture books 4. Before Binet and Simon’s test, other researchers tried to assess intelligence using A. simple measures of sensory responsiveness and reaction time. B. measurements of the skull’s physical dimensions. C. experimental hypnosis. D. interviews and observations of behavior. 5. Social interactionists believe that children’s _______ language development. A. social competencies and language experiences greatly affect B. built-in LAD is solely responsible for C. neural processing speed determines D. native language dictates the pace of 6. Two-year-old Jenna is taught nonsense words for a noun (pling for a soft, cuddly puppet) and a verb (dass for a rocking motion). Jenna is likely to A. understand both new words, but is unlikely to use them in spontaneous speech. B. produce novel word combinations with the new verb. C. confuse the new noun with the new verb. D. easily combine the new noun with words she knows well. 7. Which of the following questions is most likely to appear first in a young child’s speech? A. “Where Mommy hiding?” B. “Why is Sally sad?” C. “Daddy go work?” D. “What you are eating?” 8. Theresa is in a period of the most energetic development of her executive function. What is her age range? A. She is in late adolescence. B. She is in the preschool years. C. She is an emerging adult. D. She is in her school years. 9. Phonological development is largely complete by age A. 4. B. 3. C. 5. D. 2. 10. Research on creativity demonstrates that A. extensive knowledge isn’t necessary to make a creative contribution to a field. B. creative people tend to have little patience and persistence in the face of obstacles. C. IQ and creativity are highly correlated. D. creativity involves alternating between divergent and convergent thinking. 11. Research conducted with Kanzi, a bonobo chimp, A. indicates that chimps are better at communicating through the use of written, rather than visual, symbols. B. proves that chimps are capable of communicating basic needs, but nothing else. C. shows that bonobos are capable of conversation that includes asking questions and sharing information. D. produced no definitive results about Kanzi’s linguistic achievements. 12. Ella is African American. As she goes through middle childhood, she will most likely A. become increasingly conscious of ethnic stereotypes. B. be indifferent to ethnic stereotypes. C. become less conscious of ethnic stereotypes. D. be immediately assigned to remedial classes when she performs poorly on an IQ test. 13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the consequences of abstract thought? A. Sense of omnipotence is moderately associated with depression and suicidal thinking. B. Sense of personal uniqueness eliminates sensitivity to criticism. C. The imaginary audience discourages independence from parents. D. The imaginary audience helps teenagers maintain important relationships. 14. Preschoolers don’t understand why puns are funny because they haven’t yet developed the ability to A. appreciate the multiple meanings of words. B. deal with word meanings on an entirely verbal plane. C. extend language meanings through metaphor. D. handle unconventional word meanings. 15. A central goal of the information-processing approach is to A. develop applications for classroom learning. B. describe the normative course of cognitive development. C. refine and revise Piaget’s theory. D. uncover mechanisms of change. 16. Chomsky’s language acquisition device (LAD) refers to A. computer programs that attempt to generate the linguistic rules that are needed for language acquisition. B. instructional techniques for children with speech and language delays. C. speech programs that parents can use to teach their children grammatical rules. D. an innate system that permits children to combine words into grammatically consistent, novel utterances. 17. Children use current schemes to interpret their world in the process of assimilation, whereas _______ allows them to create new schemes or adjust old ones after noticing that their current way of thinking doesn’t capture the environment completely. A. organization B. adaptation C. accommodation D. equilibration 18. Which of the following statements is true regarding cooperative learning? A. The extent to which children achieve independence is key to fostering cooperative learning. B. A single peer interaction is more beneficial than interactions with multiple peers. C. Children’s problem solving improves most when
their peer partner has equal expertise on the task. D. For cooperative learning to succeed, Western children usually require extensive guidance. 19. Three-year-old Serena refers to a squirrel as a “rabbit,” but points correctly to a squirrel when given the word squirrel in a comprehension task. Serena probably has A. difficulty pronouncing the word squirrel. B. a hearing disability. C. difficulty recognizing squirrels. D. difficulty discriminating between squirrels and rabbits. 20. Which of the following statements is true regarding working memory? A. Working memory is the conscious, reflective part of our mental system. B. The capacity of working memory is far more restricted than that of the sensory register. C. Most school-age children can hold 10 to 12 items in their working memory. D. The capacity of working memory is far greater than that of the long-term memory store. End of exam – Foundations of Abnormal Child Psychology 1. John’s boss wants him to test clients using all the remaining stock of the old WISC-III before buying the current WISC-IV forms. John knows that regulations require him to use the new form. John is facing a/an A. moral gray area. B. emotional trauma. C. professional crisis. D. ethical dilemma. 2. Regarding the Multiaxial Assessment, what is true about mental retardation and personality disorders? A. They’re not coded on Axis I. B. Subtypes of these disorders are coded differently. C. They’re not included in the Assessment. D. Self-diagnosis is higher for these disorders. 3. Professionally, gift giving refers to A. rules about bartering. B. accepting a gift from the client. C. gifts of therapy, such as reduced tension. D. giving a token gift to the client. 4. All of the following are true concerning the APA ten ethical standards, except A. the standards address appropriate advertising and displays of public information. B. the standards address matters pertaining to research and publication. C. the standards were useful in past decades, but are no longer useful. D. the standards assist professionals to resolve ethical issues. 5. Susy is feeling depressed. She visits a therapist who says that it’s “all in her head.” He says she’s depressed because she’s “thinking like a depressed person.” Susy’s therapist likely supports which theoretical model? A. Sociocultural B. Biomedical C. Behavioral D. Cognitive 6. Darren follows his impulses blindly, and is described as a child who “does whatever he wants, whenever he wants.” Darren’s _______ guides his behavior. A. disability B. id C. aggression D. ego 7. Choose the true statement about Henry Goddard. A. His research helped prove that genetic influence is less important than upbringing. B. His reputation was damaged when he fathered children with a barmaid. C. He wrote a respected, factual biography of Martin Kallikak. D. He established a training program especially for the mentally handicapped. 8. The text cites four biases that could possibly distort perceptions. Which of the following is not one of the biases stated? A. Personal bias B. Expectancy bias C. Observer bias D. Recording bias 9. Recording the number of times a student raises his hand in class is an example of _______ recording. A. narrative B. interval C. continuous D. event 10. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebrum C. Amygdala D. Reticular activating system 11. What is one advantage of interval recording as an observation method? A. Privacy and discretion are optimized. B. There’s much information about the quality of behavior. C. More than one observer can collect data. D. It tracks the frequency of behaviors. 12. Which of the following is not a risk factor evident at the microsystem level? A. Peer rejection B. Poor quality schools C. Marital conflict D. Fewer opportunities for recreation 13. American Indian/Alaskan Native adolescents reported _______ levels of substance use compared to youth of other ethnic groups. A. similar B. less predictable C. lower D. higher 14. According to the APA Ethics Code, what must a psychologist do when obtaining consent? A. Consider the person’s preferences and best interests B. Use professional language, even with young children C. Explain the procedure only if specifically asked D. Receive consent from a minor’s mother or maternal relative 15. Which of the following statements about children in Europe before the 15th century is true? A. Comfort and happiness were considered vital for child health. B. Development fluctuated radically in different countries. C. The primary earners in most families were the children. D. Children were considered to be miniature adults. 16. Which statement about children from low income situations is true? A. They spend more time outside, and have fewer allergies than other children. B. Their parents usually have learning disabilities or mood disorders. C. The influence of the ego is stronger than it is for other children. D. They’re more likely than other children to have poor health. 17. All of the following are goals of a case formulation, except A. problem identification. B. problem prevention. C. problem classification. D. problem clarification. 18. What are Mash and Wolfe’s three goals of assessment? A. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment B. Acceptance, tolerance, and appreciation C. Identification, classification, and improvement D. Observance, recording, and analysis 19. Although Native Americans can access services through Indian Health Services (IHS), the problem with this arrangement is that A. most Native Americans are unaware that the services exist. B. most Native Americans live in rural areas and most of the IHS are situated in major urban areas. C. most IHS are located on reservations and only 20% of Native Americans live on reservations. D. the IHS services provide medical but not mental health services. 20. Rutter and Sroufe identified _______ as one of three important areas of focus in the future of developmental psychopathology. A. the role of the media in the life of the modern child B. how cause and effect underlie childhood disorders C. creating a stricter definition of normal behavior D. fetal development’s influence on childhood behavior End of exam – Internalizing Problems 1. In addition to excessive worry, a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in children requires _______ somatic symptom/symptoms. A. three B. two C. one D. four 2. Major depressive disorder in children can be diagnosed if the symptom criteria have been met for A. one year. B. two years. C. two weeks. D. six months. 3. Choose the correct example of selective mutism. A. Rayvon’s teacher says “he only hears what he wants to hear.” B. A brain injury has left Greg unable to make speech sounds. C. Jenny is extremely reluctant, even unwilling, to speak in public. D. Carlotta, 5, is developmentally normal but has not begun speaking yet. 4. Which of the following was not one of the original three Anxiety Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence? A. Separation anxiety disorder B. Simple phobia C. Overanxious disorder D. Avoidant disorder 5. Which of the following is considered a mediator effect for stress disorders? A. Poverty B. Gender C. Religious affiliation D. Race 6. Panic attacks have been related to irregular activity of which neurotransmitter? A. Serotonin B. Epinephrine C. Dopamine D. Norepinephrine 7. What is one common obsession of children with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)? A. Tooth brushing B. Insects C. Contamination D. Academic perfection 8. According to Wilens and colleagues, bipolar disorder in preschool children A. can resemble giddiness or drunkenness. B. is no different than BD across different age spans. C. has simultaneous onset with depression. D. hasn’t yet been supported empirically. 9. Of all the therapies that are used to treat unipolar depression in youth, the most common therapeutic approach is A. cognitive behavioral. B. humanistic. C. psychodynamic. D. family systems. 10. Wally, 10, has been sad and withdrawn ever since his family moved to a new neighborhood. He says he is dreading going to his new school in the fall. Wally’s parents surprise hi
m with a puppy, and while walking the dog he meets a boy his age and makes friends. Soon Wally is his normal, happy self again. Wally was most likely exhibiting A. major depressive disorder. B. adjustment disorder with depressed mood. C. dysthymic disorder. D. depressed syndrome. 11. The category of Anxiety Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence originally appeared in which revision of the DSM? A. DSM-III (1980) B. DSM-II (1968) C. DSM- III-R (1987) D. DSM-IV (1994) 12. Compared to adults, pediatric bipolar disorder often evidences which of the following? A. Pressured speech B. Insomnia C. Grandiosity D. Severe irritability 13. Younger onset of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has been associated with which comorbidity? A. Separation anxiety disorder B. Specific phobias C. Conduct disorder D. School refusal 14. The prevalence of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) among children and adolescents has been estimated to be between 2 and _______ percent. A. 10 B. 2.5 C. 8 D. 4 15. Studies of the long-term impact for children who are exposed to traumatic events, such as natural disasters or high media exposure to covering the events, reveal that for children A. those at greater distance from the event may exhibit more symptoms of PTSD than those who are closer to the event. B. many of the children (more than five percent) continue to experience PTSD symptoms many years later. C. symptoms of PTSD are temporary responses to a traumatic situation. D. risk decreases if the child was subjected to previous abuse due to a numbing factor. 16. Vegetative symptoms refer to _______ symptoms. A. environmental B. physical C. emotional D. cognitive 17. Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, while compulsions are A. unpleasant desires. B. manifest content. C. rigid behaviors. D. inappropriate words. 18. Which of the following is not a vegetative symptom of depression? A. Fatigue B. Weight loss C. Weight gain D. Insomnia 19. The term learned helplessness was originally used to describe A. battered wives who didn’t seek help. B. reactions of experimental animals that didn’t escape after repeated shocks. C. children who learn that they can get help instead of producing output. D. people who don’t sense a state of release. 20. Which of the following disorders appears under Disorders First Diagnosed in Infancy and Childhood in the DSM-IV-TR? A. Type-II diabetes B. Obsessive compulsive disorder C. Specific phobia D. Separation anxiety disorder End of exam – Problems in Late Childhood or Adolescence 1. All of the following are possible outcomes of illicit inhalant use, except A. hallucinations and delusions. B. brain atrophy. C. euphoria. D. improved health. 2. The lifetime prevalence of anorexia nervosa is _______ percent. A. eight B. five C. one D. three 3. All of the following are true regarding those with anorexia nervosa, except A. approximately 30% will have a complete recovery. B. about 10% of those who are hospitalized will die. C. 50% will develop bulimia at some later stage. D. approximately 50% will have a partial recovery. 4. According to recent investigations, individuals with greater risk for alcohol dependence were found to have A. an abnormal dopamine receptor. B. higher levels of serotonin than normal. C. higher levels of norepinephrine than normal. D. increased activity in the prefrontal areas of the brain. 5. Sandra has a body mass index (BMI) of 30. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Sandra would be considered A. obese. B. normal. C. overweight. D. underweight. 6. The year is 2005 and Pat is trying to lose weight. Given the rates of dieting among different genders and ethnic groups, if Pat is in the group with the highest percentage, we would expect that Pat is a A. white female. B. black male. C. black female. D. Hispanic female. 7. Which of the following is not one of the risk factors that can increase body dissatisfaction in females? A. Encouraging maternal comments B. Internalization of ideal body image C. Negative affect D. Late maturation 8. In their study of middle school girls and body dissatisfaction, Keery and colleagues found all the following results concerning teasing, except A. among the negative outcomes for girls in family teasing situations were lower self-esteem and restrictive and bulimic eating behaviors. B. one-third were teased by at least one sibling. C. girls were especially sensitive to teasing by their mothers. D. one-quarter of the girls were subjected to teasing about their weight by their parents. 9. Nitrous oxide found in whipped cream dispensers is an example of which category of inhalants? A. Aerosols B. Nitrites C. Volatile solvents D. Gases 10. In his discussion of theoretical frameworks to account for feeding disorders of infancy or early childhood, Douglas omits which of the following theoretical models? A. Attachment Theory model B. Cognitive Theory model C. Developmental Theory model D. Learning Theory model 11. Which of the following is not one of the individual risk factors for substance use/abuse? A. Low harm avoidance B. Poor academic skills C. Novelty seeking D. Sensation seeking 12. Children spend an average of _______ hours a day sitting in front of a television or computer. A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 6 13. Georgia has anorexia nervosa and demonstrates many symptoms of the restricting type. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with her disorder? A. Confrontational family interchanges B. Increased risk for alcohol abuse/dependence C. Cluster B personality disorders D. Increased risk for obsessive compulsive disorder 14. Substance abuse refers to A. recurrent and adverse consequences caused by the substance. B. substance withdrawal. C. compulsive reliance on a substance. D. substance tolerance. 15. One important finding of the Monitoring the Future (MTF) surveys is the existence of _______ effects to help explain trends in drug usage from generation to generation. A. cohort B. genetic C. peer D. media 16. Comparing youth in the community sample with and without substance use disorders (SUD), A. in the community sample, youth with SUD were significantly more likely to also be diagnosed with ADHD. B. there was little difference between these two samples, in the prevalence for also having any other disorder. C. in the community sample, youth with SUD were also significantly more likely to have eating disorders. D. there was no difference in the comorbidity rate between these two samples for depressive disorders. 17. In the 2005 Youth Risk Behavior Survey, among males, which ethnic group had the largest discrepancy between their perceptions of being overweight (body dissatisfaction) and their actually being overweight (BMI)? A. Hispanic males B. White males C. Native Indian males D. Black males 18. In comparing prevalence rates for youth with SUD in clinical and juvenile justice samples, A. anxiety has always been narrowly defined. B. internalizing disorders were higher in the clinical population. C. the juvenile justice sample had higher rates of comorbid disorders of mood or depression. D. there was no difference in the rate of any disorder and externalizing disorders. 19. Monitoring the Future (MTF) is a survey of youth drug habits that has been in existence since A. 1980. B. 1990. C. 1965. D. 1975. 20. From a biological model, which of the following has been found to relate to increased risk for developing an eating disorder (ED)? A. An elevated dopamine neurotransmitter B. Relatives who don’t have an ED C. An impulsive temperament D. High self-efficacy End of exam – Externalizing Problems 1. The DSM equates functioning substantially below the expected level to be a difference of A. 3 standard deviations. B. 1 standard deviation. C. 1.5 standard deviations. D. 2 standard deviations. 2. According to Olweus, _______ percent of bullies are later convicted of multiple criminal offences. A. 10 to 15 B. 40 C. 25 D. 30 3. The current DSM requires _______ symptoms for a diagnosis of ADHD in any category. A. 8 out of a possible 16 B. 9 out of a possible 15 C. 6 out of a possible 9 D. 8 out of a possible 14 4. The earliest ADHD-like symptoms (1902) were associated with A. m
inimal brain dysfunction. B. post-encephalitic behaviors. C. morbid defect of moral character. D. hyperkinetic reactions. 5. According to the DSM, the most difficult learning disorder to measure is A. disorder of written expression. B. reading disorder. C. disorder of developmental coordination. D. mathematics disorder. 6. Give an example of a covert nondestructive behavior. A. Stubbornness B. Truancy C. Theft D. Cruelty 7. According to the DSM-IV, one of the criteria is that symptoms of ADHD should have A. persisted for at least one year. B. be pervasive across situations. C. include symptoms of hyperactivity. D. onset before three years of age. 8. Which of the following is an example of an executive functioning task? A. Arranging objects according to a rule B. Shifting focus from one thing to another C. Expressing appropriate empathy to others D. Inhibiting an emotional response 9. Researchers have found all of the following to be true, except A. those with the inattentive type of ADHD are at no risk for the development of substance use. B. as many as two-thirds of children with ADHD experience sleep disturbances of periodic limb movement disorder or restless legs syndrome. C. the use of stimulant medication in children diagnosed with ADHD has been associated with increased risk for substance abuse in later adulthood. D. increased television exposure at ages one to three years was associated with attention problems at age seven. 10. Children with nonverbal learning disability may demonstrate all of the following symptoms, except A. poor ability to decode written information. B. poor ability to transfer social information between situations. C. deficits in visual/spatial processing. D. clumsiness, poor coordination. 11. Diagnosis of ADHD is so difficult in toddlers because symptoms of _______ are common at that age. A. low-risk-taking B. body dissatisfaction C. oppositional behavior D. minimal activity 12. Approximately _______ percent of children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder are diagnosed with major depressive disorder. A. 30 B. 25 C. 20 D. 15 13. All of the following neurotransmitters are part of the catecholamines, except A. epinephrine. B. acetycholine. C. norepinephrine. D. dopamine. 14. Which of the following is false regarding normal readers? A. Neural pathways mature from right to left. B. Neural pathways mature from back to front. C. Visual word and letter naming occurs in the posterior regions. D. Initially readers use the frontal regions. 15. Which of the following is true regarding sleep deprivation in children? A. Sleep deprivation can cause ADHD. B. The symptoms of sleep deprivation and ADHD are very different. C. Hyperactivity increases the more nights a child gets inadequate sleep. D. Children under 14 need at least 10 hours of sleep per night. 16. What percent of children with ADHD will likely continue to evidence symptoms in adolescence? A. 100% B. 75% C. 25% D. 50% 17. Although the majority of children demonstrate decreased aggression as they mature, _______ percent are likely to demonstrate patterns of stable and persistent aggressive and oppositional behaviors throughout development. A. under 5 B. more than 20 C. 10 to 15 D. 5 to 7 18. What is the typical age of onset for oppositional defiant disorder? A. 3 to 5 B. 4 to 8 C. 10 to 12 D. 14 to 19 19. Autumn is being touchy and argumentative with her mother. She is displaying _______ behavior. A. covert nondestructive B. covert destructive C. overt nondestructive D. covert nondestructive 20. In retrospective interviews, parents have mentioned a number of symptoms in the first year of life, regarding children who were later diagnosed with ADHD. Which of the following was not among the symptoms? A. Fearful temperament B. Irritability C. Difficult to soothe D. Excessive activity – Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities 1. Which of the following is false regarding autism? A. Brains show reduced corpus callosum compared to normal brains. B. Brains show decreased circumference compared to normal brains. C. Males are four times more likely to be diagnosed. D. Autism occurs in approximately 200 cases per 100,000. 2. In 1992, the AAMR made a significant change in the way it visualized mental retardation relative to the DSM. This change involved A. reducing the levels of severity from four to three. B. dropping levels of severity in favor of levels of intensity of intervention needed. C. shifting the base IQ rate from 85 to 70. D. classification of MR along five, rather than four, levels of severity. 3. The risk for having a child with Down syndrome A. increases with the number of live births the mother has had. B. increases to 1 in 25 births for women over 45. C. increases with the number of children the mother has had. D. is approximately 1 in 300 births in mothers of normal birthing age. 4. The standard score distribution today predicts that _______ percent of individuals who take an IQ test would score within one standard deviation of the mean. A. 30 B. 16 C. 68 D. 34 5. George is seven years old, and he’s at risk for delay in several areas. The family has just moved to the new community with few resources. He was receiving assistance as an “at-risk” student in his previous school. According to IDEA (2004), A. George is entitled to the same services as any of his full-grown siblings. B. George will be entitled to services as an “at risk” student only because he was previously receiving those services in the school he was attending. C. George may not be eligible for services because providing services to “at risk” students his age is at the discretion of the school district. D. George will be provided services only until his eighth birthday, and then he will have to be reassessed to see if he meets criteria for another classification after that time. 6. The ICD-10 Codes refer to childhood disintegration disorder as A. progressive disintegrative psychosis of childhood. B. other childhood disintegrative disorder. C. dementia infantilis. D. Heller’s syndrome. 7. Which of the following is true regarding Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973? A. The act is a civil rights law. B. Alterations to educational programming can’t be implemented. C. This act is outdated and has been replaced by IDEA 2004. D. All the provisions of the act are still in effect. 8. The reason that males do not have Rett’s is that A. females can compensate with their other Y chromosome, while males have no Y chromosome. B. males can’t inherit the disorder since it’s linked to the X chromosome. C. males are resistant to the disorder. D. if males get the condition, the defective gene can’t be compensated for and the male can’t survive. 9. Which of the following would most likely be part of the TEACCH program? A. Increasing social skills through vocational training B. Bringing a new tricycle into the room and letting the first one ride who says “trike” C. Reading to children while they are in rest period D. Using isolation to reinforce compliance 10. Longitudinal results from the Perry preschool project revealed all of the following, except A. more than twice as many controls required special education compared to those enrolled in the program. B. the public gained back $2 for every $1 devoted to the program. C. five times as many females enrolled in the program were married compared to controls. D. almost twice as many controls required social assistance compared to those who participated in the program. 11. Which of the following is a correct statement about the Supports Intensity Scale (SIS)? A. The SIS was developed by AAMR to determine appropriate individual supports needed by individuals with MR. B. The SIS was developed by the educational system to assist educators in determining whether students with MR meet criteria for special education placement. C. The SIS was developed by the Learning Disabilities Association to assist in determining whether individuals should be classified as having a learning disability or mental retardation. D. The SIS is part of the DSM criteria for determining whether individuals meet criteria for MR. 12. On his twenty-fifth birthday, Logan was h
it in the head by a flower pot as he was walking under the balcony of his apartment. The flower pot was made of concrete and weighed approximately 50 pounds. Logan has never been the same since the accident. He has lost much of his adaptive functioning in many areas, and on a recent IQ test scored a 63, compared to the 83 he scored when he was in school. According to the DSM, which of the following statements is true? A. Logan qualifies as severe MR. B. Logan would not qualify as MR. C. Logan qualifies mild MR. D. Logan qualifies moderate MR. 13. Didi is two years old, and she lives in a community with few resources. However, the school system is part of the early identification program for toddlers. Her physician refers her to the community support team, and they find that Didi experiences a 25% delay in cognitive and motor skills. According to IDEA, Didi is entitled to A. services when she becomes school-aged. B. nothing, since she’s not yet school-aged. C. intervention services through an individualized family service plan. D. services, only if her parents are able to pay for a comprehensive individual assessment of her needs to determine she warrants assistance. 14. In 1910, if a youth was functioning equivalent to a five-year-old and was considered to be feebleminded due to arrested development, according to the AAMR, the individual would be classified as a A. moron. B. imbecile. C. retardate. D. idiot. 15. In response to Edelson’s paper, Freeman and Van Dyke suggest that another reason that reports may be inflated is that A. samples were mixed with an over-representation of clinical samples. B. children with autism are penalized on IQ tests due to poor language and motivation. C. many studies relied on parent surveys to determine autism. D. autism was defined differently in many of the studies. 16. Sally is 15 years old. However, she acts more like a 12-year-old and her recent assessment with an IQ test revealed that, in fact, she does have a mental age of 12. Based on Terman’s ratio IQ equation, what is Sally’s IQ? A. 12 B. 125 C. 80 D. 105 17. Sarah is eight years old and she has been diagnosed with Rett’s disorder. She has shown continued deterioration of motor problems, some decline in negative behaviors, and some improvements socially. It’s likely that Sarah will remain at the stage she’s in for A. 20 more years. B. 1 year. C. 10 more years. D. another couple of years or indefinitely. 18. The onset of childhood disintegration disorder is usually between A. 3 to 4 years. B. 5 to 12 months. C. 2 to 3 years. D. 1 to 2 years. 19. Although hypersensitive to sound, individuals with _______ syndrome often have very high recall for facial recognition. A. Prader-Willi B. Williams C. Angelman D. Down 20. Which of the following is false regarding the Lovaas treatment program at UCLA? A. The first stage of the program was to teach behavior control, attention, and compliance. B. 47% of those in the program increased their IQ by 37 points. C. The program was essentially 40 hours a week for 3 years. D. The third stage of the program was to teach language. End of exam DISCUSSION A researcher strongly believes that physicians tend to show female nurses less attention and respect than they show male nurses. She sets up an experimental study involving observations of health clinics in different conditions. In explaining the study to the physicians and nurses who will participate, what steps should the researcher take to eliminate experimental bias based on both experimenter expectations and participant expectations?

Theory and Research in Child Development

Order Description

Theory and Research in Child Development 1. British philosopher John Locke viewed the child as A. tainted by original sin. B. a tabula rasa. C. a noble savage. D. an active, purposeful being. 2. Theorists who emphasize _______ in explaining individual differences typically stress the importance of early experiences. A. the environment B. the extended family C. the prefrontal cortex D. discontinuity 3. According to Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s view, the child is A. a tabula rasa. B. a noble savage. C. an active, purposeful being. D. tainted by original sin. 4. Before arriving in a kindergarten classroom, Dr. Banks prepares a questionnaire for interviewing children for her research. This is an example of a research A. question. B. method. C. design. D. hypothesis. 5. A strength of _______ is that it reflects participants’ everyday behavior. A. naturalistic observation B. structured observation C. the clinical interview D. the structured interview 6. An investigator interested in studying sexual practices among high school students asked them to post their answers on a Facebook group page. Which of the following research rights was most obviously violated? A. Privacy B. Protection from harm C. Informed consent D. Beneficial treatments 7. G. Stanley Hall and his student, Arnold Gesell, A. argued that children actively revise their ways of thinking, but also learn through habit. B. were the first researchers to implement behavior modification techniques. C. developed the first intelligence test. D. regarded child development as a maturational process. 8. Cross-cultural research stimulated by Vygotsky’s theory reveals that A. adults begin to encourage valued skills as soon as children start school. B. cultures select different tasks for children’s learning. C. sociocultural theory has little application outside industrialized nations. D. the developmental sequences observed in Western cultures are universal. 9. Which of the following statements is true about cohort effects? A. They occur because of factors commonly associated with development. B. They occur when participants move away or drop out of studies. C. They can’t occur when specific experiences influence some children but not others in the same generation. D. They don’t just operate broadly on an entire generation. 10. Pete participates in soccer and is beginning to master fundamental reading and math skills. Pete is probably in which period of human development? A. Infancy and toddlerhood B. Adolescence C. Middle childhood D. Early childhood 11. According to _______, children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations. A. ecological systems theory B. the psychoanalytic perspective C. the behaviorist perspective D. social learning theory 12. Dr. Hoo believes that children who are high in verbal ability, anxiety, or sociability will remain so at later ages. Dr. Hoo likely emphasizes the role of _______ in her research. A. context B. plasticity C. stability D. discontinuity 13. Five-year-old Stefan uses symbols to represent sensorimotor discoveries. However, his thinking lacks logic. Stefan is in Piaget’s _______ stage of development. A. concrete operational B. preoperational C. formal operational D. sensorimotor 14. Alfred Binet defined intelligence as A. recall, reflection, and communication. B. good judgment, planning, and critical reflection. C. emotional, social, and cognitive awareness. D. reaction time and sensitivity to physical stimuli. 15. In a sequential design, which of the following occurs? A. Participants are presented with a novel task, and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions. B. Groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time. C. Researchers conduct several cross-sectional or longitudinal investigations. D. Participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older. 16. The continuous development view holds that A. infants and preschoolers respond to the world in much the same way as adults do. B. development takes place in stages. C. children’s thoughts, emotions, and behavior differ considerably from those of adults. D. development is much like climbing a staircase. 17. Psychoanalytic theorists were strongly committed to A. correlational studies of preschool children. B. systematic observation. C. in-depth study of individual children. D. the experimental method. 18. Which of the following is a major criticism of Freud’s theory? A. It was based on the problems of sexually repressed, well-to-do adults, not on direct study of children. B. It ignores the value of the clinical, or case study, method. C. It doesn’t acknowledge the individual’s unique life history as worthy of study and understanding. D. It mostly ignores milestones of infant and toddler development. 19. Rousseau regarded development as _______ and largely influenced by nature. A. nurture B. inexplicable C. cyclical D. discontinuous 20. Which of the following is a correct statement about the field of child development? A. The field of child development is part of a larger, interdisciplinary field known as developmental science. B. The field of child development is devoted to understanding human constancy and change throughout the lifespan. C. The field of child development focuses primarily on children’s physical and emotional development. D. The field of child development focuses primarily on infants’ and children’s social and cognitive development. End of exam – Foundations of Abnormal Child Psychology 1. John’s boss wants him to test clients using all the remaining stock of the old WISC-III before buying the current WISC-IV forms. John knows that regulations require him to use the new form. John is facing a/an A. moral gray area. B. emotional trauma. C. professional crisis. D. ethical dilemma. 2. Regarding the Multiaxial Assessment, what is true about mental retardation and personality disorders? A. They’re not coded on Axis I. B. Subtypes of these disorders are coded differently. C. They’re not included in the Assessment. D. Self-diagnosis is higher for these disorders. 3. Professionally, gift giving refers to A. rules about bartering. B. accepting a gift from the client. C. gifts of therapy, such as reduced tension. D. giving a token gift to the client. 4. All of the following are true concerning the APA ten ethical standards, except A. the standards address appropriate advertising and displays of public information. B. the standards address matters pertaining to research and publication. C. the standards were useful in past decades, but are no longer useful. D. the standards assist professionals to resolve ethical issues. 5. Susy is feeling depressed. She visits a therapist who says that it’s “all in her head.” He says she’s depressed because she’s “thinking like a depressed person.” Susy’s therapist likely supports which theoretical model? A. Sociocultural B. Biomedical C. Behavioral D. Cognitive 6. Darren follows his impulses blindly, and is described as a child who “does whatever he wants, whenever he wants.” Darren’s _______ guides his behavior. A. disability B. id C. aggression D. ego 7. Choose the true statement about Henry Goddard. A. His research helped prove that genetic influence is less important than upbringing. B. His reputation was damaged when he fathered children with a barmaid. C. He wrote a respected, factual biography of Martin Kallikak. D. He established a training program especially for the mentally handicapped. 8. The text cites four biases that could possibly distort perceptions. Which of the following is not one of the biases stated? A. Personal bias B. Expectancy bias C. Observer bias D. Recording bias 9. Recording the number of times a student raises his hand in class is an example of _______ recording. A. narrative B. interval C. continuous D. event 10. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebrum C. Amygdala D. Reticular activating system 11. What is one advantage of interval recording as an observation method? A. Privacy and discretion are optimized. B. There’s
much information about the quality of behavior. C. More than one observer can collect data. D. It tracks the frequency of behaviors. 12. Which of the following is not a risk factor evident at the microsystem level? A. Peer rejection B. Poor quality schools C. Marital conflict D. Fewer opportunities for recreation 13. American Indian/Alaskan Native adolescents reported _______ levels of substance use compared to youth of other ethnic groups. A. similar B. less predictable C. lower D. higher 14. According to the APA Ethics Code, what must a psychologist do when obtaining consent? A. Consider the person’s preferences and best interests B. Use professional language, even with young children C. Explain the procedure only if specifically asked D. Receive consent from a minor’s mother or maternal relative 15. Which of the following statements about children in Europe before the 15th century is true? A. Comfort and happiness were considered vital for child health. B. Development fluctuated radically in different countries. C. The primary earners in most families were the children. D. Children were considered to be miniature adults. 16. Which statement about children from low income situations is true? A. They spend more time outside, and have fewer allergies than other children. B. Their parents usually have learning disabilities or mood disorders. C. The influence of the ego is stronger than it is for other children. D. They’re more likely than other children to have poor health. 17. All of the following are goals of a case formulation, except A. problem identification. B. problem prevention. C. problem classification. D. problem clarification. 18. What are Mash and Wolfe’s three goals of assessment? A. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment B. Acceptance, tolerance, and appreciation C. Identification, classification, and improvement D. Observance, recording, and analysis 19. Although Native Americans can access services through Indian Health Services (IHS), the problem with this arrangement is that A. most Native Americans are unaware that the services exist. B. most Native Americans live in rural areas and most of the IHS are situated in major urban areas. C. most IHS are located on reservations and only 20% of Native Americans live on reservations. D. the IHS services provide medical but not mental health services. 20. Rutter and Sroufe identified _______ as one of three important areas of focus in the future of developmental psychopathology. A. the role of the media in the life of the modern child B. how cause and effect underlie childhood disorders C. creating a stricter definition of normal behavior D. fetal development’s influence on childhood behavior End of exam – Cognitive and Language Development 1. In Sternberg’s theory, individuals who are high in practical intelligence excel at A. generating solutions to novel problems. B. acquiring task-relevant and metacognitive knowledge. C. tasks assessing nonverbal abilities. D. adapting their thinking to fit with the demands of their everyday worlds. 2. Toddlers in Substage 6 of the sensorimotor period can solve object-permanence problems involving invisible displacement because they’ve developed the capacity to A. construct mental representations. B. carry out means–end action sequences. C. engage in goal-directed behavior. D. understand dual representation. 3. _______ exposes children to great breadth of language knowledge, and is especially helpful in modeling how to communicate in a clear, coherent narrative style. A. Dialogue with caregivers about storybooks B. Observing adults’ conversations C. Reading aloud with same-age peers D. Independent exploration of picture books 4. Before Binet and Simon’s test, other researchers tried to assess intelligence using A. simple measures of sensory responsiveness and reaction time. B. measurements of the skull’s physical dimensions. C. experimental hypnosis. D. interviews and observations of behavior. 5. Social interactionists believe that children’s _______ language development. A. social competencies and language experiences greatly affect B. built-in LAD is solely responsible for C. neural processing speed determines D. native language dictates the pace of 6. Two-year-old Jenna is taught nonsense words for a noun (pling for a soft, cuddly puppet) and a verb (dass for a rocking motion). Jenna is likely to A. understand both new words, but is unlikely to use them in spontaneous speech. B. produce novel word combinations with the new verb. C. confuse the new noun with the new verb. D. easily combine the new noun with words she knows well. 7. Which of the following questions is most likely to appear first in a young child’s speech? A. “Where Mommy hiding?” B. “Why is Sally sad?” C. “Daddy go work?” D. “What you are eating?” 8. Theresa is in a period of the most energetic development of her executive function. What is her age range? A. She is in late adolescence. B. She is in the preschool years. C. She is an emerging adult. D. She is in her school years. 9. Phonological development is largely complete by age A. 4. B. 3. C. 5. D. 2. 10. Research on creativity demonstrates that A. extensive knowledge isn’t necessary to make a creative contribution to a field. B. creative people tend to have little patience and persistence in the face of obstacles. C. IQ and creativity are highly correlated. D. creativity involves alternating between divergent and convergent thinking. 11. Research conducted with Kanzi, a bonobo chimp, A. indicates that chimps are better at communicating through the use of written, rather than visual, symbols. B. proves that chimps are capable of communicating basic needs, but nothing else. C. shows that bonobos are capable of conversation that includes asking questions and sharing information. D. produced no definitive results about Kanzi’s linguistic achievements. 12. Ella is African American. As she goes through middle childhood, she will most likely A. become increasingly conscious of ethnic stereotypes. B. be indifferent to ethnic stereotypes. C. become less conscious of ethnic stereotypes. D. be immediately assigned to remedial classes when she performs poorly on an IQ test. 13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the consequences of abstract thought? A. Sense of omnipotence is moderately associated with depression and suicidal thinking. B. Sense of personal uniqueness eliminates sensitivity to criticism. C. The imaginary audience discourages independence from parents. D. The imaginary audience helps teenagers maintain important relationships. 14. Preschoolers don’t understand why puns are funny because they haven’t yet developed the ability to A. appreciate the multiple meanings of words. B. deal with word meanings on an entirely verbal plane. C. extend language meanings through metaphor. D. handle unconventional word meanings. 15. A central goal of the information-processing approach is to A. develop applications for classroom learning. B. describe the normative course of cognitive development. C. refine and revise Piaget’s theory. D. uncover mechanisms of change. 16. Chomsky’s language acquisition device (LAD) refers to A. computer programs that attempt to generate the linguistic rules that are needed for language acquisition. B. instructional techniques for children with speech and language delays. C. speech programs that parents can use to teach their children grammatical rules. D. an innate system that permits children to combine words into grammatically consistent, novel utterances. 17. Children use current schemes to interpret their world in the process of assimilation, whereas _______ allows them to create new schemes or adjust old ones after noticing that their current way of thinking doesn’t capture the environment completely. A. organization B. adaptation C. accommodation D. equilibration 18. Which of the following statements is true regarding cooperative learning? A. The extent to which children achieve independence is key to fostering cooperative learning. B. A single peer interaction is more beneficial than interactions with multiple peers. C. Children’s problem solving improves most when
their peer partner has equal expertise on the task. D. For cooperative learning to succeed, Western children usually require extensive guidance. 19. Three-year-old Serena refers to a squirrel as a “rabbit,” but points correctly to a squirrel when given the word squirrel in a comprehension task. Serena probably has A. difficulty pronouncing the word squirrel. B. a hearing disability. C. difficulty recognizing squirrels. D. difficulty discriminating between squirrels and rabbits. 20. Which of the following statements is true regarding working memory? A. Working memory is the conscious, reflective part of our mental system. B. The capacity of working memory is far more restricted than that of the sensory register. C. Most school-age children can hold 10 to 12 items in their working memory. D. The capacity of working memory is far greater than that of the long-term memory store. End of exam – Foundations of Abnormal Child Psychology 1. John’s boss wants him to test clients using all the remaining stock of the old WISC-III before buying the current WISC-IV forms. John knows that regulations require him to use the new form. John is facing a/an A. moral gray area. B. emotional trauma. C. professional crisis. D. ethical dilemma. 2. Regarding the Multiaxial Assessment, what is true about mental retardation and personality disorders? A. They’re not coded on Axis I. B. Subtypes of these disorders are coded differently. C. They’re not included in the Assessment. D. Self-diagnosis is higher for these disorders. 3. Professionally, gift giving refers to A. rules about bartering. B. accepting a gift from the client. C. gifts of therapy, such as reduced tension. D. giving a token gift to the client. 4. All of the following are true concerning the APA ten ethical standards, except A. the standards address appropriate advertising and displays of public information. B. the standards address matters pertaining to research and publication. C. the standards were useful in past decades, but are no longer useful. D. the standards assist professionals to resolve ethical issues. 5. Susy is feeling depressed. She visits a therapist who says that it’s “all in her head.” He says she’s depressed because she’s “thinking like a depressed person.” Susy’s therapist likely supports which theoretical model? A. Sociocultural B. Biomedical C. Behavioral D. Cognitive 6. Darren follows his impulses blindly, and is described as a child who “does whatever he wants, whenever he wants.” Darren’s _______ guides his behavior. A. disability B. id C. aggression D. ego 7. Choose the true statement about Henry Goddard. A. His research helped prove that genetic influence is less important than upbringing. B. His reputation was damaged when he fathered children with a barmaid. C. He wrote a respected, factual biography of Martin Kallikak. D. He established a training program especially for the mentally handicapped. 8. The text cites four biases that could possibly distort perceptions. Which of the following is not one of the biases stated? A. Personal bias B. Expectancy bias C. Observer bias D. Recording bias 9. Recording the number of times a student raises his hand in class is an example of _______ recording. A. narrative B. interval C. continuous D. event 10. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebrum C. Amygdala D. Reticular activating system 11. What is one advantage of interval recording as an observation method? A. Privacy and discretion are optimized. B. There’s much information about the quality of behavior. C. More than one observer can collect data. D. It tracks the frequency of behaviors. 12. Which of the following is not a risk factor evident at the microsystem level? A. Peer rejection B. Poor quality schools C. Marital conflict D. Fewer opportunities for recreation 13. American Indian/Alaskan Native adolescents reported _______ levels of substance use compared to youth of other ethnic groups. A. similar B. less predictable C. lower D. higher 14. According to the APA Ethics Code, what must a psychologist do when obtaining consent? A. Consider the person’s preferences and best interests B. Use professional language, even with young children C. Explain the procedure only if specifically asked D. Receive consent from a minor’s mother or maternal relative 15. Which of the following statements about children in Europe before the 15th century is true? A. Comfort and happiness were considered vital for child health. B. Development fluctuated radically in different countries. C. The primary earners in most families were the children. D. Children were considered to be miniature adults. 16. Which statement about children from low income situations is true? A. They spend more time outside, and have fewer allergies than other children. B. Their parents usually have learning disabilities or mood disorders. C. The influence of the ego is stronger than it is for other children. D. They’re more likely than other children to have poor health. 17. All of the following are goals of a case formulation, except A. problem identification. B. problem prevention. C. problem classification. D. problem clarification. 18. What are Mash and Wolfe’s three goals of assessment? A. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment B. Acceptance, tolerance, and appreciation C. Identification, classification, and improvement D. Observance, recording, and analysis 19. Although Native Americans can access services through Indian Health Services (IHS), the problem with this arrangement is that A. most Native Americans are unaware that the services exist. B. most Native Americans live in rural areas and most of the IHS are situated in major urban areas. C. most IHS are located on reservations and only 20% of Native Americans live on reservations. D. the IHS services provide medical but not mental health services. 20. Rutter and Sroufe identified _______ as one of three important areas of focus in the future of developmental psychopathology. A. the role of the media in the life of the modern child B. how cause and effect underlie childhood disorders C. creating a stricter definition of normal behavior D. fetal development’s influence on childhood behavior End of exam – Internalizing Problems 1. In addition to excessive worry, a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in children requires _______ somatic symptom/symptoms. A. three B. two C. one D. four 2. Major depressive disorder in children can be diagnosed if the symptom criteria have been met for A. one year. B. two years. C. two weeks. D. six months. 3. Choose the correct example of selective mutism. A. Rayvon’s teacher says “he only hears what he wants to hear.” B. A brain injury has left Greg unable to make speech sounds. C. Jenny is extremely reluctant, even unwilling, to speak in public. D. Carlotta, 5, is developmentally normal but has not begun speaking yet. 4. Which of the following was not one of the original three Anxiety Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence? A. Separation anxiety disorder B. Simple phobia C. Overanxious disorder D. Avoidant disorder 5. Which of the following is considered a mediator effect for stress disorders? A. Poverty B. Gender C. Religious affiliation D. Race 6. Panic attacks have been related to irregular activity of which neurotransmitter? A. Serotonin B. Epinephrine C. Dopamine D. Norepinephrine 7. What is one common obsession of children with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)? A. Tooth brushing B. Insects C. Contamination D. Academic perfection 8. According to Wilens and colleagues, bipolar disorder in preschool children A. can resemble giddiness or drunkenness. B. is no different than BD across different age spans. C. has simultaneous onset with depression. D. hasn’t yet been supported empirically. 9. Of all the therapies that are used to treat unipolar depression in youth, the most common therapeutic approach is A. cognitive behavioral. B. humanistic. C. psychodynamic. D. family systems. 10. Wally, 10, has been sad and withdrawn ever since his family moved to a new neighborhood. He says he is dreading going to his new school in the fall. Wally’s parents surprise hi
m with a puppy, and while walking the dog he meets a boy his age and makes friends. Soon Wally is his normal, happy self again. Wally was most likely exhibiting A. major depressive disorder. B. adjustment disorder with depressed mood. C. dysthymic disorder. D. depressed syndrome. 11. The category of Anxiety Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence originally appeared in which revision of the DSM? A. DSM-III (1980) B. DSM-II (1968) C. DSM- III-R (1987) D. DSM-IV (1994) 12. Compared to adults, pediatric bipolar disorder often evidences which of the following? A. Pressured speech B. Insomnia C. Grandiosity D. Severe irritability 13. Younger onset of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has been associated with which comorbidity? A. Separation anxiety disorder B. Specific phobias C. Conduct disorder D. School refusal 14. The prevalence of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) among children and adolescents has been estimated to be between 2 and _______ percent. A. 10 B. 2.5 C. 8 D. 4 15. Studies of the long-term impact for children who are exposed to traumatic events, such as natural disasters or high media exposure to covering the events, reveal that for children A. those at greater distance from the event may exhibit more symptoms of PTSD than those who are closer to the event. B. many of the children (more than five percent) continue to experience PTSD symptoms many years later. C. symptoms of PTSD are temporary responses to a traumatic situation. D. risk decreases if the child was subjected to previous abuse due to a numbing factor. 16. Vegetative symptoms refer to _______ symptoms. A. environmental B. physical C. emotional D. cognitive 17. Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, while compulsions are A. unpleasant desires. B. manifest content. C. rigid behaviors. D. inappropriate words. 18. Which of the following is not a vegetative symptom of depression? A. Fatigue B. Weight loss C. Weight gain D. Insomnia 19. The term learned helplessness was originally used to describe A. battered wives who didn’t seek help. B. reactions of experimental animals that didn’t escape after repeated shocks. C. children who learn that they can get help instead of producing output. D. people who don’t sense a state of release. 20. Which of the following disorders appears under Disorders First Diagnosed in Infancy and Childhood in the DSM-IV-TR? A. Type-II diabetes B. Obsessive compulsive disorder C. Specific phobia D. Separation anxiety disorder End of exam – Problems in Late Childhood or Adolescence 1. All of the following are possible outcomes of illicit inhalant use, except A. hallucinations and delusions. B. brain atrophy. C. euphoria. D. improved health. 2. The lifetime prevalence of anorexia nervosa is _______ percent. A. eight B. five C. one D. three 3. All of the following are true regarding those with anorexia nervosa, except A. approximately 30% will have a complete recovery. B. about 10% of those who are hospitalized will die. C. 50% will develop bulimia at some later stage. D. approximately 50% will have a partial recovery. 4. According to recent investigations, individuals with greater risk for alcohol dependence were found to have A. an abnormal dopamine receptor. B. higher levels of serotonin than normal. C. higher levels of norepinephrine than normal. D. increased activity in the prefrontal areas of the brain. 5. Sandra has a body mass index (BMI) of 30. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Sandra would be considered A. obese. B. normal. C. overweight. D. underweight. 6. The year is 2005 and Pat is trying to lose weight. Given the rates of dieting among different genders and ethnic groups, if Pat is in the group with the highest percentage, we would expect that Pat is a A. white female. B. black male. C. black female. D. Hispanic female. 7. Which of the following is not one of the risk factors that can increase body dissatisfaction in females? A. Encouraging maternal comments B. Internalization of ideal body image C. Negative affect D. Late maturation 8. In their study of middle school girls and body dissatisfaction, Keery and colleagues found all the following results concerning teasing, except A. among the negative outcomes for girls in family teasing situations were lower self-esteem and restrictive and bulimic eating behaviors. B. one-third were teased by at least one sibling. C. girls were especially sensitive to teasing by their mothers. D. one-quarter of the girls were subjected to teasing about their weight by their parents. 9. Nitrous oxide found in whipped cream dispensers is an example of which category of inhalants? A. Aerosols B. Nitrites C. Volatile solvents D. Gases 10. In his discussion of theoretical frameworks to account for feeding disorders of infancy or early childhood, Douglas omits which of the following theoretical models? A. Attachment Theory model B. Cognitive Theory model C. Developmental Theory model D. Learning Theory model 11. Which of the following is not one of the individual risk factors for substance use/abuse? A. Low harm avoidance B. Poor academic skills C. Novelty seeking D. Sensation seeking 12. Children spend an average of _______ hours a day sitting in front of a television or computer. A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 6 13. Georgia has anorexia nervosa and demonstrates many symptoms of the restricting type. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with her disorder? A. Confrontational family interchanges B. Increased risk for alcohol abuse/dependence C. Cluster B personality disorders D. Increased risk for obsessive compulsive disorder 14. Substance abuse refers to A. recurrent and adverse consequences caused by the substance. B. substance withdrawal. C. compulsive reliance on a substance. D. substance tolerance. 15. One important finding of the Monitoring the Future (MTF) surveys is the existence of _______ effects to help explain trends in drug usage from generation to generation. A. cohort B. genetic C. peer D. media 16. Comparing youth in the community sample with and without substance use disorders (SUD), A. in the community sample, youth with SUD were significantly more likely to also be diagnosed with ADHD. B. there was little difference between these two samples, in the prevalence for also having any other disorder. C. in the community sample, youth with SUD were also significantly more likely to have eating disorders. D. there was no difference in the comorbidity rate between these two samples for depressive disorders. 17. In the 2005 Youth Risk Behavior Survey, among males, which ethnic group had the largest discrepancy between their perceptions of being overweight (body dissatisfaction) and their actually being overweight (BMI)? A. Hispanic males B. White males C. Native Indian males D. Black males 18. In comparing prevalence rates for youth with SUD in clinical and juvenile justice samples, A. anxiety has always been narrowly defined. B. internalizing disorders were higher in the clinical population. C. the juvenile justice sample had higher rates of comorbid disorders of mood or depression. D. there was no difference in the rate of any disorder and externalizing disorders. 19. Monitoring the Future (MTF) is a survey of youth drug habits that has been in existence since A. 1980. B. 1990. C. 1965. D. 1975. 20. From a biological model, which of the following has been found to relate to increased risk for developing an eating disorder (ED)? A. An elevated dopamine neurotransmitter B. Relatives who don’t have an ED C. An impulsive temperament D. High self-efficacy End of exam – Externalizing Problems 1. The DSM equates functioning substantially below the expected level to be a difference of A. 3 standard deviations. B. 1 standard deviation. C. 1.5 standard deviations. D. 2 standard deviations. 2. According to Olweus, _______ percent of bullies are later convicted of multiple criminal offences. A. 10 to 15 B. 40 C. 25 D. 30 3. The current DSM requires _______ symptoms for a diagnosis of ADHD in any category. A. 8 out of a possible 16 B. 9 out of a possible 15 C. 6 out of a possible 9 D. 8 out of a possible 14 4. The earliest ADHD-like symptoms (1902) were associated with A. m
inimal brain dysfunction. B. post-encephalitic behaviors. C. morbid defect of moral character. D. hyperkinetic reactions. 5. According to the DSM, the most difficult learning disorder to measure is A. disorder of written expression. B. reading disorder. C. disorder of developmental coordination. D. mathematics disorder. 6. Give an example of a covert nondestructive behavior. A. Stubbornness B. Truancy C. Theft D. Cruelty 7. According to the DSM-IV, one of the criteria is that symptoms of ADHD should have A. persisted for at least one year. B. be pervasive across situations. C. include symptoms of hyperactivity. D. onset before three years of age. 8. Which of the following is an example of an executive functioning task? A. Arranging objects according to a rule B. Shifting focus from one thing to another C. Expressing appropriate empathy to others D. Inhibiting an emotional response 9. Researchers have found all of the following to be true, except A. those with the inattentive type of ADHD are at no risk for the development of substance use. B. as many as two-thirds of children with ADHD experience sleep disturbances of periodic limb movement disorder or restless legs syndrome. C. the use of stimulant medication in children diagnosed with ADHD has been associated with increased risk for substance abuse in later adulthood. D. increased television exposure at ages one to three years was associated with attention problems at age seven. 10. Children with nonverbal learning disability may demonstrate all of the following symptoms, except A. poor ability to decode written information. B. poor ability to transfer social information between situations. C. deficits in visual/spatial processing. D. clumsiness, poor coordination. 11. Diagnosis of ADHD is so difficult in toddlers because symptoms of _______ are common at that age. A. low-risk-taking B. body dissatisfaction C. oppositional behavior D. minimal activity 12. Approximately _______ percent of children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder are diagnosed with major depressive disorder. A. 30 B. 25 C. 20 D. 15 13. All of the following neurotransmitters are part of the catecholamines, except A. epinephrine. B. acetycholine. C. norepinephrine. D. dopamine. 14. Which of the following is false regarding normal readers? A. Neural pathways mature from right to left. B. Neural pathways mature from back to front. C. Visual word and letter naming occurs in the posterior regions. D. Initially readers use the frontal regions. 15. Which of the following is true regarding sleep deprivation in children? A. Sleep deprivation can cause ADHD. B. The symptoms of sleep deprivation and ADHD are very different. C. Hyperactivity increases the more nights a child gets inadequate sleep. D. Children under 14 need at least 10 hours of sleep per night. 16. What percent of children with ADHD will likely continue to evidence symptoms in adolescence? A. 100% B. 75% C. 25% D. 50% 17. Although the majority of children demonstrate decreased aggression as they mature, _______ percent are likely to demonstrate patterns of stable and persistent aggressive and oppositional behaviors throughout development. A. under 5 B. more than 20 C. 10 to 15 D. 5 to 7 18. What is the typical age of onset for oppositional defiant disorder? A. 3 to 5 B. 4 to 8 C. 10 to 12 D. 14 to 19 19. Autumn is being touchy and argumentative with her mother. She is displaying _______ behavior. A. covert nondestructive B. covert destructive C. overt nondestructive D. covert nondestructive 20. In retrospective interviews, parents have mentioned a number of symptoms in the first year of life, regarding children who were later diagnosed with ADHD. Which of the following was not among the symptoms? A. Fearful temperament B. Irritability C. Difficult to soothe D. Excessive activity – Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities 1. Which of the following is false regarding autism? A. Brains show reduced corpus callosum compared to normal brains. B. Brains show decreased circumference compared to normal brains. C. Males are four times more likely to be diagnosed. D. Autism occurs in approximately 200 cases per 100,000. 2. In 1992, the AAMR made a significant change in the way it visualized mental retardation relative to the DSM. This change involved A. reducing the levels of severity from four to three. B. dropping levels of severity in favor of levels of intensity of intervention needed. C. shifting the base IQ rate from 85 to 70. D. classification of MR along five, rather than four, levels of severity. 3. The risk for having a child with Down syndrome A. increases with the number of live births the mother has had. B. increases to 1 in 25 births for women over 45. C. increases with the number of children the mother has had. D. is approximately 1 in 300 births in mothers of normal birthing age. 4. The standard score distribution today predicts that _______ percent of individuals who take an IQ test would score within one standard deviation of the mean. A. 30 B. 16 C. 68 D. 34 5. George is seven years old, and he’s at risk for delay in several areas. The family has just moved to the new community with few resources. He was receiving assistance as an “at-risk” student in his previous school. According to IDEA (2004), A. George is entitled to the same services as any of his full-grown siblings. B. George will be entitled to services as an “at risk” student only because he was previously receiving those services in the school he was attending. C. George may not be eligible for services because providing services to “at risk” students his age is at the discretion of the school district. D. George will be provided services only until his eighth birthday, and then he will have to be reassessed to see if he meets criteria for another classification after that time. 6. The ICD-10 Codes refer to childhood disintegration disorder as A. progressive disintegrative psychosis of childhood. B. other childhood disintegrative disorder. C. dementia infantilis. D. Heller’s syndrome. 7. Which of the following is true regarding Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973? A. The act is a civil rights law. B. Alterations to educational programming can’t be implemented. C. This act is outdated and has been replaced by IDEA 2004. D. All the provisions of the act are still in effect. 8. The reason that males do not have Rett’s is that A. females can compensate with their other Y chromosome, while males have no Y chromosome. B. males can’t inherit the disorder since it’s linked to the X chromosome. C. males are resistant to the disorder. D. if males get the condition, the defective gene can’t be compensated for and the male can’t survive. 9. Which of the following would most likely be part of the TEACCH program? A. Increasing social skills through vocational training B. Bringing a new tricycle into the room and letting the first one ride who says “trike” C. Reading to children while they are in rest period D. Using isolation to reinforce compliance 10. Longitudinal results from the Perry preschool project revealed all of the following, except A. more than twice as many controls required special education compared to those enrolled in the program. B. the public gained back $2 for every $1 devoted to the program. C. five times as many females enrolled in the program were married compared to controls. D. almost twice as many controls required social assistance compared to those who participated in the program. 11. Which of the following is a correct statement about the Supports Intensity Scale (SIS)? A. The SIS was developed by AAMR to determine appropriate individual supports needed by individuals with MR. B. The SIS was developed by the educational system to assist educators in determining whether students with MR meet criteria for special education placement. C. The SIS was developed by the Learning Disabilities Association to assist in determining whether individuals should be classified as having a learning disability or mental retardation. D. The SIS is part of the DSM criteria for determining whether individuals meet criteria for MR. 12. On his twenty-fifth birthday, Logan was h
it in the head by a flower pot as he was walking under the balcony of his apartment. The flower pot was made of concrete and weighed approximately 50 pounds. Logan has never been the same since the accident. He has lost much of his adaptive functioning in many areas, and on a recent IQ test scored a 63, compared to the 83 he scored when he was in school. According to the DSM, which of the following statements is true? A. Logan qualifies as severe MR. B. Logan would not qualify as MR. C. Logan qualifies mild MR. D. Logan qualifies moderate MR. 13. Didi is two years old, and she lives in a community with few resources. However, the school system is part of the early identification program for toddlers. Her physician refers her to the community support team, and they find that Didi experiences a 25% delay in cognitive and motor skills. According to IDEA, Didi is entitled to A. services when she becomes school-aged. B. nothing, since she’s not yet school-aged. C. intervention services through an individualized family service plan. D. services, only if her parents are able to pay for a comprehensive individual assessment of her needs to determine she warrants assistance. 14. In 1910, if a youth was functioning equivalent to a five-year-old and was considered to be feebleminded due to arrested development, according to the AAMR, the individual would be classified as a A. moron. B. imbecile. C. retardate. D. idiot. 15. In response to Edelson’s paper, Freeman and Van Dyke suggest that another reason that reports may be inflated is that A. samples were mixed with an over-representation of clinical samples. B. children with autism are penalized on IQ tests due to poor language and motivation. C. many studies relied on parent surveys to determine autism. D. autism was defined differently in many of the studies. 16. Sally is 15 years old. However, she acts more like a 12-year-old and her recent assessment with an IQ test revealed that, in fact, she does have a mental age of 12. Based on Terman’s ratio IQ equation, what is Sally’s IQ? A. 12 B. 125 C. 80 D. 105 17. Sarah is eight years old and she has been diagnosed with Rett’s disorder. She has shown continued deterioration of motor problems, some decline in negative behaviors, and some improvements socially. It’s likely that Sarah will remain at the stage she’s in for A. 20 more years. B. 1 year. C. 10 more years. D. another couple of years or indefinitely. 18. The onset of childhood disintegration disorder is usually between A. 3 to 4 years. B. 5 to 12 months. C. 2 to 3 years. D. 1 to 2 years. 19. Although hypersensitive to sound, individuals with _______ syndrome often have very high recall for facial recognition. A. Prader-Willi B. Williams C. Angelman D. Down 20. Which of the following is false regarding the Lovaas treatment program at UCLA? A. The first stage of the program was to teach behavior control, attention, and compliance. B. 47% of those in the program increased their IQ by 37 points. C. The program was essentially 40 hours a week for 3 years. D. The third stage of the program was to teach language. End of exam DISCUSSION A researcher strongly believes that physicians tend to show female nurses less attention and respect than they show male nurses. She sets up an experimental study involving observations of health clinics in different conditions. In explaining the study to the physicians and nurses who will participate, what steps should the researcher take to eliminate experimental bias based on both experimenter expectations and participant expectations?